Curse

Essence Snow · Jan 22, 2012, 06:22 PM // 18:22

Okay so I have run into some questions about probability that I cannot find the answers to and was wondering if anyone was abe to shed some insight on. Both question pertain to a 100 square football pool.

Given:
1) 1 square has a 1/100 chance of hitting when no numbers are assigned to the squares.
2) Once squares are assigned numbers there is an 100% chance the odds will no longer be 1/100 for that square.
3) There is a 100% chance that numbers will be applied to the square.

Question:

Are the odds still 1/100 for each square knowing that there is a 0% chance of each square actually having 1/100 odds?

Okay second question....

Given: Football scoring is accumualtive

Does the probability of 1 square hitting during once instance (ie....1st quarter, 2nd, 3rd) change the probablity of that square hitting on another instance?

In other words....if your square hits 1st quarter....do you still have the same initial odds of it hitting during the second quater, 3rd quarter...4th?

Essence Snow · Jan 24, 2012, 12:01 AM // 00:01

Sooo....no one...kk i guess I'll have to up the ante....25k to anyone that can give and explain logical answers

Junato · Jan 24, 2012, 02:47 PM // 14:47

Ask your question at http://www.physicsforums.com/

The Only Warrior · Jan 26, 2012, 10:34 AM // 10:34

Quote:

Originally Posted by Essence Snow

1) 1 square has a 1/100 chance of hitting when no numbers are assigned to the squares.
2) Once squares are assigned numbers there is an 100% chance the odds will no longer be 1/100 for that square.
3) There is a 100% chance that numbers will be applied to the square.

1. the question
2. the hypothesis
3. the answer

therefore, there is a 100% chance that there is a 0% chance that the odds are no longer 1/100.
please direct all further rhetorical questions towards someone who gives a flying RED ENGINE GORED ENGINE GORED ENGINE GORED ENGINE GO. ty.

Essence Snow · Jan 26, 2012, 03:54 PM // 15:54

Quote:

Originally Posted by The Only Warrior

1. the question
2. the hypothesis
3. the answer

therefore, there is a 100% chance that there is a 0% chance that the odds are no longer 1/100.
please direct all further rhetorical questions towards someone who gives a flying RED ENGINE GORED ENGINE GORED ENGINE GORED ENGINE GO. ty.

Well since this was of zero help (can tell instantly from the use of the red engine stuff that it wouldn't)...imma up the ante to 50k

The question is not as simple as one might think...much like how 0.999...=1 even though the 9s are infinite or how a divergent series can analytically continued beyond their radius of convergence. ex) 1+2+4+8+16....=-1

Junato...ty i'll try there..just hope i dont have to sign up for anything